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Series 7 Trading and Settlement Practice Questions

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8
Updated
Nov 3, 2026
  1. Question 1, hard

    A customer's margin account holds stock originally purchased for $20,000 using Reg T 50% initial margin (a $10,000 debit balance). The stock has since risen in value to $24,000. Approximately how much additional fully marginable stock could the customer purchase using only the account's special memorandum account (SMA), without depositing new cash?

    • A.$2,000
    • B.$4,000
    • C.$10,000
    • D.$14,000
    Show answer and explanationHide answer

    Correct answer: B. $4,000

    Current equity = market value − debit balance = $24,000 − $10,000 = $14,000. The Reg T requirement on the current $24,000 market value is 50% = $12,000. Excess equity credited to SMA = $14,000 − $12,000 = $2,000. Because a new purchase also requires 50% margin, that $2,000 of SMA supports twice its value in new fully marginable purchasing power: $2,000 × 2 = $4,000.

    • A. This is the SMA balance itself ($2,000 of excess equity above the 50% requirement), not the additional buying power it generates. It understates the answer by ignoring Reg T leverage.
    • B. Market appreciation to $24,000 leaves equity of $14,000 against a $12,000 Reg T requirement (50% of $24,000), creating $2,000 of SMA. Because SMA represents fully leveraged buying power, the customer can buy 2x that amount, or $4,000, of additional marginable stock without new cash.
    • C. This matches the original debit balance, not the SMA-driven buying power created by the stock's appreciation. The two numbers are unrelated here.
    • D. This is the account's total current equity ($24,000 value minus $10,000 debit), not the incremental buying power released into SMA by the price increase.
  2. Question 2, easy

    Under current SEC rules, what is the standard settlement cycle for a regular-way trade of corporate stock?

    • A.Trade date plus 1 business day (T+1)
    • B.Trade date plus 2 business days (T+2)
    • C.Trade date plus 3 business days (T+3)
    • D.Same-day cash settlement
    Show answer and explanationHide answer

    Correct answer: A. Trade date plus 1 business day (T+1)

    The SEC shortened the standard settlement cycle for most broker-dealer securities transactions, including regular-way corporate stock trades, from T+2 to T+1, effective May 2024. This reduces counterparty and market risk during the settlement period.

    • A. Correct: regular-way settlement for corporate securities is currently T+1.
    • B. T+2 was the standard prior to the May 2024 rule change; it is now outdated for regular-way trades.
    • C. T+3 was the standard prior to 2017 and is no longer applicable.
    • D. Cash settlement (same-day) is a special, less common settlement type, not the regular-way standard.
  3. Question 3, easy

    A customer enters a market order for a thinly traded stock. Available quotes are wide and displayed size is small. Which explanation of expected execution is most accurate?

    • A.The most recent quoted trade price is assured for the full order size, since a market order is filled at the last reported sale.
    • B.The customer can cancel the order after it has been executed in the market, because a market order is not final until settlement.
    • C.A market order removes liquidity risk, because the order is filled promptly and the wide quotes are irrelevant to the final price.
    • D.The order emphasizes execution over price and can experience slippage from price impact, especially when depth is limited and quotes are wide.
    Show answer and explanationHide answer

    Correct answer: D. The order emphasizes execution over price and can experience slippage from price impact, especially when depth is limited and quotes are wide.

    Market orders prioritize prompt execution at available prices, not a reference quote. Wide quotes and thin depth can cause price impact.

    • A. Fills occur at available bids and offers, which can differ from the last trade, especially for larger sizes.
    • B. An executed trade is binding; cancellation applies only to unexecuted orders.
    • C. A market order still faces liquidity risk, which shows up as slippage in thin markets.
    • D. Market orders favor execution over price, so thin depth and wide quotes can cause slippage.
  4. Question 4, medium

    A long margin account holds $40,000 market value and has a $31,000 debit. If maintenance equity must equal 25% of market value, what is the current equity deficit?

    • A.$9,000
    • B.$1,000
    • C.$2,250
    • D.$10,000
    Show answer and explanationHide answer

    Correct answer: B. $1,000

    Equity is $40,000 - $31,000 = $9,000. Required maintenance is 25% x $40,000 = $10,000, so the deficit is $1,000.

    • A. This is the current equity, not the shortfall.
    • B. Required equity of $10,000 less actual equity of $9,000 is a $1,000 deficit.
    • C. This applies 25% to the equity rather than to market value.
    • D. This is the required maintenance amount, not the shortfall.
  5. Question 5, easy

    A customer wants to purchase 25 shares of a stock that normally trades in round lots of 100 shares. How is this order classified?

    • A.A round lot order
    • B.An odd lot order, which may be handled or executed differently than round lots
    • C.A mixed lot order requiring special exchange approval
    • D.An order that is not permitted under exchange rules
    Show answer and explanationHide answer

    Correct answer: B. An odd lot order, which may be handled or executed differently than round lots

    An order for fewer shares than the standard round-lot unit (typically 100 shares) is classified as an odd lot. Odd lots are fully permitted but may be handled through different execution mechanics or routing than round lots, particularly for certain order types and market data treatment.

    • A. A round lot is a standard trading unit (typically 100 shares); an order for 25 shares is smaller than that standard unit, so it isn't a round lot order.
    • B. Since 25 shares is less than the normal 100-share round lot for this stock, it is classified as an odd lot order, which may be handled differently (e.g., different execution venues or pricing conventions) than round lot orders.
    • C. There's no such thing as a "mixed lot" requiring special exchange approval; orders below a round lot are simply classified as odd lots, not a distinct approval-required category.
    • D. Odd lot orders are permitted and routinely executed; they are not barred by exchange rules, just potentially handled through different mechanisms than round lots.
  6. Question 6, hard

    Two colluding parties prearrange simultaneous buy and sell orders in the same security, with no genuine change in beneficial ownership, in order to create a false appearance of active trading. This activity is best described as which of the following?

    • A.Matched orders, a manipulative practice
    • B.Legitimate market-making activity
    • C.Arbitrage
    • D.A riskless principal transaction
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    Correct answer: A. Matched orders, a manipulative practice

    Matched orders involve prearranged, simultaneous or near-simultaneous buy and sell orders in the same security entered by or for colluding parties, with no genuine change in beneficial ownership, for the purpose of creating a false appearance of active trading or influencing price. This is prohibited manipulation under the anti-fraud/anti-manipulation provisions of the Exchange Act and FINRA rules. Legitimate arbitrage involves independent parties responding to a genuine price discrepancy with a real change in ownership and no intent to create a false appearance; a riskless principal transaction is a legitimate, disclosed dealer trade offsetting a customer order at a genuine market price.

    • A. Prearranged, collusive buy/sell orders designed to fake trading activity with no real change in beneficial ownership are the definition of matched orders, a prohibited manipulative practice.
    • B. This describes the opposite of legitimate market making. Prearranged trades with no real change in ownership are manipulative, not genuine liquidity provision.
    • C. Arbitrage is the legitimate exploitation of genuine price discrepancies across markets, unrelated to collusive fake trades in the same security.
    • D. A riskless principal transaction is a legitimate offsetting trade for a firm's own account at a marked-up/down price, not a collusive scheme to fabricate trading volume.
  7. Question 7, easy

    Under current industry rules, a regular-way trade of listed common stock settles:

    • A.One business day after trade date
    • B.On trade date
    • C.Two business days after trade date
    • D.Three business days after trade date
    Show answer and explanationHide answer

    Correct answer: A. One business day after trade date

    Regular-way settlement for most corporate securities, including common stock, is T+1 (one business day after trade date), a standard that took effect industry-wide in May 2024. Before that change, the standard was T+2.

    • A. Correct. Regular-way settlement for equities is currently T+1.
    • B. Incorrect. Same-day (cash) settlement is possible only by special agreement or under cash-trade terms, and it is not the regular-way cycle for listed common stock, which settles one business day after trade date.
    • C. T+2 was the prior standard before the May 2024 shortening to T+1.
    • D. Incorrect. T+3 was the regular-way standard until September 2017, when it was shortened to T+2. It was later shortened again to T+1, so it is not the current cycle.
  8. Question 8, medium

    Before accepting or effecting a short sale order, Regulation SHO requires a broker-dealer to have reasonable grounds to believe that the security can be borrowed and delivered by settlement date. This obligation is known as which of the following?

    • A.Uptick rule
    • B.Locate requirement
    • C.Close-out requirement
    • D.Threshold security requirement
    Show answer and explanationHide answer

    Correct answer: B. Locate requirement

    Regulation SHO's locate requirement obligates a broker-dealer to have reasonable grounds to believe a security can be borrowed and delivered by settlement date before accepting or effecting a short sale order. The uptick rule (Rule 201) restricts short selling only after a security has dropped 10% in one day. The close-out requirement addresses persistent settlement fails, and a threshold security is one with significant, ongoing fails that triggers enhanced close-out obligations.

    • A. The uptick rule (Reg SHO Rule 201) restricts short selling after a stock drops 10% in a day; it has nothing to do with confirming a share can be borrowed before the trade.
    • B. This pre-trade obligation to reasonably believe the security can be borrowed and delivered by settlement is exactly what Reg SHO calls the locate requirement.
    • C. The close-out requirement addresses what a firm must do after a fail to deliver has already occurred, not the pre-trade check before accepting the short sale.
    • D. Threshold security status is a classification triggered by persistent settlement fails in a name, which then invokes mandatory close-out rules. It isn't the locate obligation itself.

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