Free Series 24 Practice Exam
More than 250 questions · Updated Nov 3, 2026
The Series 24 (General Securities Principal Qualification Examination) is the FINRA exam requirement for registering as a general securities principal, who supervises and manages branch office activities at a broker-dealer.
Series 24 at a glance
- Time
- 3 hours 45 minutes
- Passing score
- 70%
Full exam format
Exam format: 150 scored multiple-choice questions (plus 10 unscored pretest items randomly mixed in, for 160 total delivered), 3 hours 45 minutes, computer-administered. Passing score: 70%. This site has more than 250 free Series 24 practice questions with explanations.
Source: FINRA Series 24 Content Outline
Try a few Series 24 questions
A broker-dealer must file a Currency Transaction Report (CTR) for currency transactions by, or on behalf of, a customer exceeding:
- A.$3,000
- B.$5,000
- C.$10,000
- D.$25,000
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: C. $10,000
Under the Bank Secrecy Act, broker-dealers must file a CTR (FinCEN Form 112) for currency transactions exceeding $10,000 in a single business day, whether in a single transaction or in multiple transactions the firm knows to be by or on behalf of the same person.
- A. Incorrect. $3,000 is the threshold for the funds transfer recordkeeping and travel rules, which require a financial institution to keep records and pass along information on transmittals at or above that amount. It does not trigger a currency transaction report.
- B. Incorrect. $5,000 is the minimum amount at which a broker-dealer must file a Suspicious Activity Report (SAR) on a transaction that involves or aggregates at least that much in funds or assets and appears suspicious. A SAR depends on suspicious activity, not on a cash amount, so it is a different filing from a CTR.
- C. Correct. Under the Bank Secrecy Act, a broker-dealer must file a CTR for currency transactions by, or on behalf of, a customer that exceed $10,000. Multiple cash transactions in one business day are aggregated when they total more than that amount.
- D. Incorrect. $25,000 is not the CTR threshold or a currency reporting threshold under the Bank Secrecy Act. Using it would leave cash transactions between $10,000 and $25,000 unreported.
A firm keeps a type of record for which neither the Exchange Act rules nor any FINRA rule specifies a retention period. How long does FINRA Rule 4511 require the firm to preserve it?
- A.Three years from the date of the record
- B.Four years from the date of the record
- C.Six years from the date of the record
- D.For as long as the firm remains a member
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: C. Six years from the date of the record
FINRA Rule 4511(b) provides that, for books and records required under FINRA rules for which no retention period is specified under FINRA rules or Exchange Act Rule 17a-4, the firm must preserve them for at least six years. This default prevents gaps in retention.
- A. Three years is the retention period for certain specific Rule 17a-4 records, not the FINRA default.
- B. Four years applies to the customer complaint file under Rule 4513, not the default.
- C. Correct: the FINRA default retention period is six years.
- D. Retention for the life of the firm applies to specific organizational records, not the default.
A client emails a representative accusing the firm of unauthorized trades and asking for reimbursement. The representative deletes the message rather than forwarding it. Which principal response is most appropriate?
- A.Treat the complaint as an informal comment because it came by email rather than as a signed letter, and log it only if the client follows up.
- B.Wait until the client files a court action or arbitration claim, then begin an investigation and evaluate any reporting obligations.
- C.Preserve the complaint, investigate promptly, and evaluate regulatory reporting, supervision and remediation requirements for the unauthorized-trade claim.
- D.Delete associated order tickets and related emails once the matter is closed, so the allegation cannot be misunderstood in a later review.
Show answer and explanationHide answer
Correct answer: C. Preserve the complaint, investigate promptly, and evaluate regulatory reporting, supervision and remediation requirements for the unauthorized-trade claim.
A written grievance alleging unauthorized trades is a complaint that must be preserved, investigated and evaluated for reporting. Deleting the email or related records compounds the violation.
- A. A written grievance by email is still a written complaint and must be recorded and handled.
- B. Obligations arise when the complaint is received, not when litigation or arbitration begins.
- C. The principal should preserve the record, investigate and assess reporting and remediation.
- D. Destroying order tickets or emails violates recordkeeping requirements.
Practice the Series 24
Work through exam-style questions for the General Securities Principal Qualification Examination (Series 24), one at a time, with an explanation after each answer. No account required. Sign in only if you want your progress synced across devices.
Questions are drafted with help from AI and published only after a person reviews and approves them. How these questions are made
What’s on the Series 24
Function 1. Supervision of Registration of the Broker-Dealer and Personnel Management Activities6%
1.1 Broker-dealer and office registration
Covers initiating, amending, or terminating the firm's and its branch offices' registrations in the CRD system, including distinguishing SEC/SRO/state filing obligations and the difference between broker-dealer and investment adviser registration.
1.2 Hiring, registration, and personnel management
Covers pre-hire background/disciplinary screening, registering and terminating associated persons (Forms U4/U5), heightened supervision triggers, and continuing education (Regulatory and Firm Element) obligations.
Function 2. Supervision of General Broker-Dealer Activities30%
2.1 Written supervisory procedures and controls
Building, maintaining, and testing WSPs and supervisory controls, including branch/OSJ inspection cycles, CEO certification of compliance processes, and business continuity planning.
2.2 Supervising associated-person conduct
Overseeing conflicts of interest, personal trading, outside business activities, and private securities transactions by registered persons.
2.3 Compensation practices
Supervising networking arrangements, referral payments, cash/non-cash compensation, and gifts given or received by the firm and its people.
2.4 Product and service oversight
Evaluating new and existing products/services for risk, ensuring associated persons are properly trained, and conducting ongoing due diligence as products evolve.
2.5 Discipline and dispute handling
Taking corrective/disciplinary action for rule violations and properly handling customer complaints, arbitration, and FINRA/SEC disciplinary proceedings.
2.6 Books and records
Establishing policies for creating, retaining, and electronically storing required books and records.
2.7 Financial responsibility and cash management
Supervising net capital reporting, customer asset segregation, short-interest reporting, margin/credit extension rules, and clearing arrangements.
Function 3. Supervision of Retail and Institutional Customer-Related Activities21.3%
3.1 Account opening and maintenance
Supervising new-account documentation, Customer Identification Program (CIP)/AML compliance, OFAC screening, privacy of customer data, and identity-theft prevention.
3.2 Communications with the public
Reviewing and approving advertising, social media, correspondence, and public speaking engagements, including Do-Not-Call and filing requirements.
3.3 Transactions, recommendations, and disclosures
Reviewing suitability and best-interest determinations, commission/markup practices, and required customer disclosures, plus escalating red flags in account activity.
Function 4. Supervision of Trading and Market Making Activities21.3%
4.1 Order entry, routing, and execution
Supervising trader mandates, market-making/quoting activity, Regulation SHO and Regulation NMS compliance, best execution, and trading halts.
4.2 Trade booking and settlement
Overseeing trade confirmations, disclosures, and buy-in/close-out procedures for unsettled trades.
4.3 Trade reporting compliance
Ensuring executions are reported correctly through the applicable trade reporting facility (e.g., TRACE, ADF, FINRA/Nasdaq TRF) and reviewing Consolidated Audit Trail obligations.
Function 5. Supervision of Investment Banking and Research21.3%
5.1 Investment banking policies and activities
Supervising underwriting, private/public offerings, M&A and fairness-opinion work, issuer due diligence, and information-barrier requirements.
5.2 Offering and marketing materials
Reviewing and approving pitch books, prospectus-related disclosures, and other new-issue marketing materials for compliance with offering communication rules.
5.3 Research supervision
Overseeing what qualifies as research, the approval/dissemination process for research reports, and disclosure requirements for analysts making public appearances.
Practice Series 24 by topic
About the Series 24 exam
- Number of questions
- 150 scored items (exam delivers 160 total items per candidate: 150 scored + 10 unscored/unidentified pretest items)
- Prerequisites
- Candidate must be associated with and sponsored by a FINRA member firm (or other applicable SRO member firm). In addition to the Series 24, candidates must pass the Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) exam and a representative-level qualification exam (Series 7, 57, 79 or 82, or the Series 86 and 87 pair), or the Series 16 Supervisory Analysts exam, to hold an appropriate principal registration. The principal registration granted depends on the corequisite exam: Series 7 for General Securities Principal, Series 57 for Securities Trader Principal, Series 79 for Investment Banking Principal, Series 82 for Private Securities Offerings Principal, and Series 86 and 87 or Series 16 for Research Principal.
- Format
- 150 scored multiple-choice questions (plus 10 unscored pretest items randomly mixed in, for 160 total delivered), 3 hours 45 minutes, computer-administered
- Level
- Principal/supervisory registration (entry-level General Securities Principal; requires a corequisite representative-level registration)
- Who it's for
- Entry-level general securities principals, branch managers, and supervisory/compliance staff at FINRA member broker-dealers who will supervise sales, trading, market making, underwriting, research, and overall firm compliance activities. It qualifies a much broader supervisory scope than the limited Series 9/10 sales-supervisor exams, though (unlike Series 9/10) it does not cover municipal securities or options.
Series 24 exam FAQ
How many questions are on the Series 24 exam?
150 scored items (exam delivers 160 total items per candidate: 150 scored + 10 unscored/unidentified pretest items)
What is a passing score on the Series 24?
70%
What is the format of the Series 24 exam?
150 scored multiple-choice questions (plus 10 unscored pretest items randomly mixed in, for 160 total delivered), 3 hours 45 minutes, computer-administered
Are there prerequisites for the Series 24?
Candidate must be associated with and sponsored by a FINRA member firm (or other applicable SRO member firm). In addition to the Series 24, candidates must pass the Securities Industry Essentials (SIE) exam and a representative-level qualification exam (Series 7, 57, 79 or 82, or the Series 86 and 87 pair), or the Series 16 Supervisory Analysts exam, to hold an appropriate principal registration. The principal registration granted depends on the corequisite exam: Series 7 for General Securities Principal, Series 57 for Securities Trader Principal, Series 79 for Investment Banking Principal, Series 82 for Private Securities Offerings Principal, and Series 86 and 87 or Series 16 for Research Principal.
Who should take the Series 24?
Entry-level general securities principals, branch managers, and supervisory/compliance staff at FINRA member broker-dealers who will supervise sales, trading, market making, underwriting, research, and overall firm compliance activities. It qualifies a much broader supervisory scope than the limited Series 9/10 sales-supervisor exams, though (unlike Series 9/10) it does not cover municipal securities or options.
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